2024-09-15

772: Map Is Bijection iff Preimage of Codomain Point Is 1 Point Subset

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description/proof of that map is bijection iff preimage of codomain point is 1 point subset

Topics


About: set

The table of contents of this article


Starting Context



Target Context


  • The reader will have a description and a proof of the proposition that any map is a bijection iff the preimage of each codomain point is a 1 point subset.

Orientation


There is a list of definitions discussed so far in this site.

There is a list of propositions discussed so far in this site.


Main Body


1: Structured Description


Here is the rules of Structured Description.

Entities:
S1: { the sets }
S2: { the sets }
f: :S1S2
//

Statements:
f{ the bijections }

sS2(|f1(s)|=1), where || is the cardinality of the set
//


2: Natural Language Description


For any sets, S1,S2, and any map, f:S1S2, f is a bijection if and only for each sS2, |f1(s)|=1.


3: Proof


Whole Strategy: Step 1: suppose that f is a bijection and see that |f1(s)|=1; Step 2: suppose that |f1(s)|=1 and see that f is a bijection.

Step 1:

Let us suppose that f is a bijection.

Let sS2 be any.

f1(s), because as f is surjective, there is at least 1 point in S1 that (the point) is mapped to s, which means that 0<|f1(s)|. |f1(s)|<2, because if 2|f1(s)|, there would be some s1,s2S1 such that f(s1)=f(s2)=s, a contradiction against f's being injective. So, 0<|f1(s)|<2, which implies that |f1(s)|=1.

Step 2:

Let us suppose that for each sS2, |f1(s)|=1.

f is surjective, because there is at least 1 point in S1 that (the point) is mapped to s. f is injective, because if there were some s1,s2S1 such that f(s1)=f(s2), 2|f1(f(s1))|, a contradiction against |f1(s)|=1 for s=f(s1)=f(s2). So, f is a bijection.


References


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