2022-07-03

313: How Wedge Product as an Equivalence Class of Elements of Tensor Algebra Is Related with the Tensor Products Construct

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A description of how wedge product as an equivalence class of elements of tensor algebra is related with the tensor products construct

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About: exterior algebra

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Starting Context



Target Context


  • The reader will have a description of how wedge product as an equivalence class of elements of any tensor algebra is related with the tensor products construct.

Orientation


There is a list of definitions discussed so far in this site.

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Main Body


1: Description


In a formal definition, wedge product is defined to be an element of an exterior algebra, which means that any wedge product is an equivalence class of elements of a tensor algebra.

For example, for (V), the wedge product, v1v2 where v1,v2V, is an equivalence class, [v1v2], which includes v1v2,v2v1,21(v1v2v2v1).

On the other hand, in a less formal definition, the wedge product, v1v2, is defined as v1v2v2v1 or 21(v1v2v2v1).

How has the 2nd definition come from the 1st definition?

You know, 'class' is a collection of some elements, and does not correspond to any specific element, like "v1v2v2v1". But the class has been somehow surreptitiously identified with the specific tensor products construct . . .

Especially, v1v2v2v1 is not even include in the class while 21(v1v2v2v1) is included, but even if the latter is chosen as the definition, why should the element be chosen among the various elements of the class?

In fact, the correspondence from the class to an element of T(V) does not automatically occur logically speaking (how can it, indeed?), and we have to explicitly establish the correspondence by a somewhat arbitrary definition, although there is a set of certain prerequisites the definition has to satisfy.

"prerequisites" there means for example, the definition has to satisfy, for example, v1v2=v2v1. So, it cannot be v1v2:=v1v2.

So, let us make a somewhat arbitrary definition.

Tk(V) is a left R-module, and by the universal mapping property of the pair of the k-th exterior algebra and wedge product for alternating k-linear maps for any left R-module, for any alternating k-linear map, f:VkTk(V), there is the unique linear map, f~:k(V)Tk(V). Take f as k!A(v1v2...vk) where A is the antisymmetrization operator, which is 21(v1v2v2v1) for k=2, which is alternating k-linear indeed. Then, there is the unique linear map, f~, which offers a Tk(V) element for each k(V) element, which we accept.

That definition is well-defined, although I do not meticulously prove it here, while the well-defined-ness is prevalently accepted, as the definition is nothing but one of the prevalently-accepted definitions. Roughly speaking, it is well-defined because it is antisymmetric.

So, it is not really v1v2=v1v2v2v1, but f~(v1v2)=v1v2v2v1, which is really reasonable, because a class and a specific element cannot be the same object.

While there are 2 prevalently-accepted definitions with the difference of the factors, both are logically OK because any definition essentially includes the leeway in the factor.


References


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